Exam Preparation Guide

CCAIGS Exam Prep Guide

A comprehensive study guide with domain-by-domain materials, 40 practice questions with explanations, a key terms glossary, and test-taking strategies — everything you need to pass the CCAIGS examination.

Exam at a Glance

What to expect

Questions
100
85 scored + 15 beta
Time Limit
180 min
3 hours
Passing Score
70%
60 of 85 correct
Format
Multiple Choice
4 options per question
Exam Blueprint

Domain breakdown

The exam covers 8 domains aligned to the 8-module Academy curriculum. Understanding the weight of each domain helps you allocate study time effectively.

01

Foundations: NIST AI RMF in Healthcare

The four NIST AI RMF functions (GOVERN, MAP, MEASURE, MANAGE), characteristics of trustworthy AI, and their adaptation to clinical environments.

15
questions
15% weight
02

The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

The ONC HTI-1 Final Rule, source attribute requirements, transparency documentation, compliance timelines, and the Predictive Decision Support Intervention (PDSI) framework.

15
questions
15% weight
03

Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

Building and maintaining a comprehensive AI inventory, shadow AI discovery, NIST-aligned risk tiering, and inventory data models for healthcare.

15
questions
15% weight
04

HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

PHI data flow mapping through AI systems, minimum necessary standards, de-identification, DPIAs for AI, Business Associate Agreements, and AI training data governance.

15
questions
15% weight
05

Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

Bias detection methods, fairness metrics, clinical validation frameworks, demographic parity, equalized odds, and FDA SaMD validation requirements.

14
questions
14% weight
06

AI Incident Response & Disclosure

AI-specific incident scenarios, state breach notification laws, disclosure obligations, escalation paths, and post-incident review.

12
questions
12% weight
07

Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

Committee charters, decision rights, stakeholder communication, cross-functional representation, and governance cadence.

10
questions
10% weight
08

Professional Responsibility & Ethics

Professional ethics for AI governance practitioners, conflicts of interest, duty of care, and the CCAIGS code of conduct.

4
questions
4% weight
8-Week Study Plan

Recommended study schedule

1

Week 1

6-8 hours

Domain 1: Foundations — NIST AI RMF in Healthcare

  • Read NIST AI RMF 1.0 (Sections 2-3)
  • Study all GOVERN, MAP, MEASURE, MANAGE subcategories
  • Complete Module 1 of the Academy curriculum
2

Week 2

6-8 hours

Domain 2: HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

  • Read the ONC HTI-1 Final Rule (45 CFR § 170.315(b)(11))
  • Study the PDSI framework and source attributes
  • Complete Module 2 of the Academy curriculum
3

Week 3

6-8 hours

Domain 3: Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

  • Study the five-factor risk model
  • Practice classifying clinical AI scenarios
  • Complete Module 3 of the Academy curriculum
4

Week 4

6-8 hours

Domain 4: HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

  • Review HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules
  • Study de-identification methods (Safe Harbor and Expert Determination)
  • Complete Module 4 of the Academy curriculum
5

Week 5

6-8 hours

Domain 5: Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

  • Study fairness metrics (demographic parity, equalized odds)
  • Review FDA SaMD framework and PCCP
  • Complete Module 5 of the Academy curriculum
6

Week 6

5-6 hours

Domains 6-7: Incident Response & Governance

  • Study AI incident types and response protocols
  • Review governance committee structures and charters
  • Complete Modules 6-7 of the Academy curriculum
7

Week 7

8-10 hours

Domain 8 + Practice Questions

  • Review professional ethics and code of conduct
  • Complete all practice questions in this guide
  • Take the Academy practice exam (if available)
8

Week 8

4-6 hours

Final Review & Exam

  • Review weak domains identified in practice
  • Re-read key reference materials
  • Take the CCAIGS Certification Examination
Domain Study Guides

Master each domain

Detailed study materials for each of the 8 exam domains — key concepts to master, must-know references, and common pitfalls to avoid.

01

Foundations: NIST AI RMF in Healthcare

15 questions · 15% of exam

Key Concepts to Master

  • The NIST AI RMF has four core functions: GOVERN, MAP, MEASURE, MANAGE. GOVERN is the overarching function that directs the other three.
  • GOVERN establishes policies, roles, and a culture of risk management. It should be established FIRST when beginning an AI governance journey.
  • MAP contextualizes the AI system — identifying intended use, context, stakeholders, and potential impacts.
  • MEASURE analyzes, assesses, benchmarks, and monitors AI system performance, including bias, reliability, and drift.
  • MANAGE allocates resources to identified risks, responds to incidents, and manages ongoing AI system lifecycle.
  • Seven characteristics of trustworthy AI: Valid & Reliable, Safe, Secure & Resilient, Explainable & Interpretable, Privacy-Enhanced, Fair (with Harmful Bias Managed), Accountable & Transparent.
  • The NIST AI RMF Playbook provides actionable steps for implementing each subcategory — the RMF is the framework, the Playbook makes it operational.
  • "Telemetry" in the MEASURE function refers to automated collection and analysis of AI system performance data during operation, enabling drift detection.

Must-Know References

•GOVERN-2.1: Roles and responsibilities for AI governance are defined (AI Risk Officer, committee structure)

•GOVERN-4.1: Demographically and substantively diverse teams are established

•MAP-2.1: Specific context and intended purposes are identified

•MAP-5.1: Impact on individuals, groups, communities is assessed (prioritization)

•MEASURE-2.8: In-context performance metrics are assessed (real-world monitoring)

•MEASURE-2.11: Fairness and bias evaluation

•MANAGE-4.1: Effectiveness of AI system management approaches is assessed

Common Pitfalls

  • Confusing "Explainable and Interpretable" (users understanding outputs) with "Accountable and Transparent" (ability to monitor and control the system).
  • Thinking MAP should come before GOVERN. GOVERN provides the foundation — policies, roles, and culture — that enables the other functions.
  • Assuming "Scalable" is one of the seven trustworthy AI characteristics. It is NOT — memorize the seven.
02

The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

15 questions · 15% of exam

Key Concepts to Master

  • The HTI-1 Final Rule was issued by the ONC (Office of the National Coordinator for Health IT), NOT the FDA or HHS OCR.
  • HTI-1 applies to AI/predictive algorithms that are part of ONC-certified Health IT (CEHRT). It does NOT cover all healthcare software.
  • The transparency framework is called PDSI: Predictive Decision Support Intervention.
  • The DEVELOPER of the certified health IT is responsible for making source attributes available — not the healthcare provider.
  • Source attributes must be made available through a FHIR API (Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources), enabling machine-readable access.
  • Required source attribute categories: intended use/users, purpose, development & training data, validity & reliability measures, maintenance information, and fairness/equity efforts.
  • HTI-1 and FDA regulation are complementary but distinct: PDSI applies to certified health IT; FDA regulates medical devices. Some systems may be subject to both.
  • Providers are expected to REVIEW source attributes, make them available to clinical users, and establish workflow processes — NOT to independently re-validate algorithms.

Must-Know References

•45 CFR § 170.315(b)(11) is the key regulatory citation for PDSI requirements

•"Users" under HTI-1 includes anyone who interacts with or is affected by the intervention — clinicians, patients, and authorized representatives

•Source attributes must include known disparities in performance across demographic groups (transparency, not a guarantee of bias-free outcomes)

•Compliance is phased in as a condition of certification under the new ONC Health IT Certification Program edition

Common Pitfalls

  • Confusing which agency issued HTI-1 (ONC, not FDA). The FDA regulates medical devices; ONC regulates certified health IT.
  • Thinking providers must independently validate every algorithm. Providers review and manage; developers disclose and make available.
  • Assuming source attributes require releasing raw training data or proprietary source code. They require DESCRIPTIONS, not raw data.
03

Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

15 questions · 15% of exam

Key Concepts to Master

  • A comprehensive inventory includes ALL AI systems: approved, pilot, AND shadow/unauthorized AI. Excluding shadow AI creates a critical blind spot.
  • Shadow AI discovery requires multiple methods: network traffic analysis (API calls), endpoint scanning (installed tools), and staff surveys (browser-based usage). No single method is sufficient.
  • The five-factor risk model: Data Sensitivity, Decision Impact, Human Oversight, Scale of Deployment, and Reversibility of decisions.
  • Human-in-the-loop (a human reviews AI outputs before action) significantly reduces risk tier compared to autonomous systems.
  • Risk-based prioritization: focus governance effort on high and critical risk systems first. Lower-risk systems get lighter controls.
  • Inventory should be reviewed at least quarterly, with continuous updates when new tools are deployed or discovered.
  • Each inventory entry should document: vendor, data types, department, intended use, authorization status, and risk tier.
  • A clinical AI inventory captures AI-specific metadata (model type, training data description, intended clinical use) that general IT asset inventories do not include.

Must-Know References

•Entering PHI into a public AI chatbot without a BAA is a HIPAA violation — the most common shadow AI risk

•When a shadow AI tool is discovered: assess risk, determine if it processes PHI, then decide to formalize or block (not blanket block without assessment)

•AI embedded within EHR systems or medical devices is a unique healthcare challenge — "hidden AI" requires vendor coordination to identify

•MAP-4.1: Identifying individuals and groups affected by the AI system

Common Pitfalls

  • Assuming only FDA-approved medical devices need to be inventoried. Shadow AI is often the biggest risk.
  • Blanket-blocking shadow AI without assessment. This drives usage further underground rather than solving the governance gap.
  • Treating a clinical AI inventory the same as a general IT asset inventory. AI-specific metadata (model type, training data, bias status) is essential.
04

HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

15 questions · 15% of exam

Key Concepts to Master

  • PHI can be shared with an AI vendor ONLY when a Business Associate Agreement (BAA) is signed and the disclosure is permitted under the HIPAA Privacy Rule.
  • Required BAA elements: permitted uses/disclosures, safeguards, breach reporting, and termination provisions. The vendor’s marketing budget is NOT required.
  • De-identification methods: Safe Harbor (removal of 18 categories of identifiers) and Expert Determination (statistician certifies "very small" re-identification risk).
  • Minimum Necessary standard: AI systems should access only the data fields needed for their function, not entire patient records.
  • HIPAA Security Rule Technical Safeguards require encryption of ePHI at rest and in transit (addressable, but standard expectation).
  • Breach Notification Rule: notify affected individuals within 60 days of discovery. 500+ individuals also requires HHS notification within 60 days.
  • Business associates must notify the covered entity without unreasonable delay and no later than 60 days after discovering a breach.
  • AI models may memorize training data, creating PHI leakage risk through model outputs (model inversion / data extraction attacks).
  • A DPIA for clinical AI should document: data flows, PHI types, retention periods, access controls, and privacy risks.

Must-Know References

•HIPAA § 164.514(b)(2): Safe Harbor requires removal of 18 identifier categories

•HIPAA § 164.502(b): Minimum Necessary standard

•HIPAA § 164.404(b): 60-day individual notification deadline

•HIPAA § 164.410: Business associate breach notification obligation

•Covered entities = health plans, clearinghouses, and providers who transmit health info electronically (§ 160.103)

•For cloud-based AI: a Data Processing Addendum (DPA) specifying data location, sub-processors, and deletion upon termination is critical beyond the BAA

Common Pitfalls

  • Assuming any use of PHI for AI training is automatically permitted. De-identification or authorization is required.
  • Thinking the 60-day breach notification clock starts when the breach occurred. It starts when the breach is DISCOVERED.
  • Confusing covered entities with business associates. AI vendors are business associates, not covered entities.
05

Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

14 questions · 14% of exam

Key Concepts to Master

  • Demographic parity: equal positive outcome rates across groups. Does NOT account for base rate differences.
  • Equalized odds: equal true positive rate AND false positive rate across groups. Stricter than demographic parity.
  • Selection bias: training data does not represent the target population (e.g., trained on male patients, deployed on all patients).
  • Label bias: labels in training data reflect historical biases in human judgment (e.g., underdiagnosis in certain populations).
  • Concept drift: the relationship between inputs and outcomes changes over time, causing performance degradation even though code hasn’t changed.
  • Statistical fairness (equal metrics across groups) vs. clinical fairness (clinically appropriate outcomes accounting for group-specific factors). A model can be statistically fair but clinically unfair.
  • Intersectionality: bias at the intersection of multiple dimensions (e.g., race AND sex) that is invisible when evaluating dimensions separately.
  • FDA SaMD framework requires a Predetermined Change Control Plan (PCCP) for AI/ML-based medical devices, describing anticipated modifications and evaluation methods.
  • Pre-deployment fairness audit: stratify model performance by all relevant demographic groups — not just aggregate accuracy.

Must-Know References

•High aggregate accuracy can mask significant group-level bias — always check stratified performance

•When retraining: validate the new model across ALL demographic groups and compare fairness metrics to the previous version

•Multi-dimensional fairness: checking only race can mask bias in age, sex, disability, language, and socioeconomic status

•A clinical AI validation protocol must include: defined patient population, evaluation metrics, success thresholds, and ongoing monitoring plan

Common Pitfalls

  • Deploying a model with high overall accuracy but known group-level disparities. Aggregate accuracy is insufficient.
  • Assuming a model that was fair at deployment remains fair after retraining. New data can introduce new bias.
  • Evaluating only one demographic dimension. Bias is multi-dimensional and intersectional.
06

AI Incident Response & Disclosure

12 questions · 12% of exam

Key Concepts to Master

  • AI-specific IRPs must address AI-unique scenarios: model failure, biased outputs, data poisoning, training data leakage, and model drift — beyond traditional cyber incidents.
  • Model drift from distribution shift: the real-world population changes, causing the model’s assumptions to no longer hold. This is an AI-specific incident type.
  • A HIPAA breach requires: impermissible use/disclosure of unsecured PHI + risk assessment determining exposure is NOT low probability. Not all incidents qualify as breaches.
  • AI incident response steps: detection & triage, containment (disable model), investigation, notification (if PHI involved), post-incident review with corrective action.
  • The "black-box problem": AI models may produce incorrect outputs for reasons difficult to explain without specialized investigation and vendor involvement.
  • Tabletop exercise: a simulated incident scenario where team members discuss (not execute) their roles to test the IRP.
  • Model inversion attacks: querying a deployed model strategically to extract training data (potentially PHI). AI-specific threat not in traditional cybersecurity frameworks.
  • Model retirement requires: updating the AI inventory, recording in lessons learned, handling data per retention policies, and notifying clinical users.

Must-Know References

•HIPAA § 164.402: definition of breach (requires risk assessment)

•State breach notification laws may have different triggers and timelines than HIPAA

•Racially biased AI outputs causing denial of care may require disclosure to patients, governance committee, leadership, and regulators

•Post-incident review must document: timeline, root cause, affected patients, model performance before/after, corrective actions, and recurrence prevention recommendations

Common Pitfalls

  • Using a general IT/cyber IRP for AI incidents. AI-specific scenarios (drift, bias, data extraction) are not covered.
  • Deleting a retired model without documentation. This creates governance gaps and loses lessons learned.
  • Assuming all AI incidents are HIPAA breaches. A risk assessment is required to determine if the exposure meets the breach definition.
07

Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

10 questions · 10% of exam

Key Concepts to Master

  • Effective committee structure: cross-functional representation from clinical, IT, legal/compliance, privacy, ethics, and patient advocacy — with a defined charter and decision-making authority.
  • A governance charter defines: scope, authority, membership, decision rights, meeting cadence, and reporting obligations. Without a charter, the committee lacks formal authority.
  • Meeting cadence: monthly or quarterly (depending on AI deployment volume) with emergency session capability for incident response.
  • Patient advocacy representatives are often overlooked but critical for ensuring governance decisions consider patient interests (NIST GOVERN-4.1: diverse perspectives).
  • AI Risk Officer: designated lead responsible for AI governance, with documented authority, inventory oversight, and leadership reporting.
  • Decision rights: documented allocation of authority — who can approve, reject, or escalate different categories of AI deployments (e.g., committee approves low-risk, AI Risk Officer approves medium-risk, leadership approves high-risk).
  • Effective staff communication: concise guidance integrated into clinical workflows, not 200-page policy documents.
  • External stakeholder engagement should be proactive (patient advisory boards, accessible information), not reactive (after an incident).

Must-Know References

•NIST GOVERN-2.1: Roles and responsibilities are defined (AI Risk Officer role)

•NIST GOVERN-4.1: Diverse perspectives, including patient advocacy

•Charters should be reviewed at least annually to reflect evolving AI landscape and regulations

•Primary governance consideration for new AI tools: risk profile, clinical validation, data governance, patient safety/equity — NOT cost savings or popularity

Common Pitfalls

  • Having a single IT director make all AI governance decisions. Diverse perspectives are essential.
  • Creating a committee without a charter. Without documented authority, the committee can only advise, not act.
  • Only engaging external stakeholders after a major incident. Proactive engagement builds trust.
08

Professional Responsibility & Ethics

4 questions · 4% of exam

Key Concepts to Master

  • Duty of care to patients transcends organizational hierarchy. Specialists must document concerns, escalate through governance channels, and consider regulatory reporting as a last resort.
  • Conflicts of interest (e.g., financial interest in an AI vendor being evaluated) must be disclosed and the specialist must recuse themselves from related decisions.
  • Continuing professional development: specialists must maintain current knowledge of evolving AI regulations and best practices through ongoing education and recertification.
  • The CCAIGS code of conduct requires: duty of care, conflict disclosure, continuing professional development, and patient-centered decision-making.

Must-Know References

•Escalation path: document concern in writing → governance committee → leadership → regulatory/oversight bodies (last resort)

•Public criticism on social media is NOT an appropriate escalation channel

•Undisclosed conflicts undermine governance integrity and could cause patient harm

Common Pitfalls

  • Following leadership decisions without question when patient safety is at risk. The specialist has a duty of care.
  • Immediately resigning without raising the concern through proper channels.
  • Assuming personal preferences for technologies constitute conflicts of interest. Only financial or material interests qualify.
Practice Questions

40 practice questions with explanations

These practice questions are separate from the actual exam bank. Click a question to reveal the answer and explanation. Study all 40 before taking the exam.

Q1Foundations: NIST AI RMF in Healthcare

Which NIST AI RMF function is described as "the overarching function that is intrinsically connected to all other functions"?

A. MAP
B. GOVERN
C. MEASURE
D. MANAGE
Q2Foundations: NIST AI RMF in Healthcare

A hospital wants to ensure its AI system can withstand adversarial attacks and data poisoning. Which NIST AI RMF characteristic addresses this?

A. Safe
B. Secure and Resilient
C. Valid and Reliable
D. Explainable and Interpretable
Q3Foundations: NIST AI RMF in Healthcare

Which NIST AI RMF subcategory requires organizations to define the roles and responsibilities of individuals and teams related to AI system governance?

A. GOVERN-1.1
B. GOVERN-2.1
C. GOVERN-3.1
D. GOVERN-4.1
Q4Foundations: NIST AI RMF in Healthcare

Under NIST AI RMF, which function involves "analyzing, assessing, benchmarking, monitoring, and tracking AI system characteristics for trustworthiness"?

A. GOVERN
B. MAP
C. MEASURE
D. MANAGE
Q5Foundations: NIST AI RMF in Healthcare

Which of the following is a key purpose of the NIST AI RMF Playbook?

A. To replace the RMF for healthcare organizations
B. To provide actionable steps for implementing each RMF subcategory
C. To serve as a legal requirement for all AI deployments
D. To certify AI vendors as compliant
Q6The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

The HTI-1 Final Rule’s algorithm transparency requirements apply to which category of health IT?

A. All software used in healthcare, regardless of certification
B. AI and predictive algorithms that are part of ONC-certified Health IT (CEHRT)
C. Only AI systems developed by pharmaceutical companies
D. Only AI systems used for billing purposes
Q7The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

Under HTI-1, who is responsible for making source attribute information available to users of the certified health IT?

A. The healthcare provider organization
B. The ONC directly through a public registry
C. The developer of the certified health IT, via a FHIR API
D. The FDA as part of device approval
Q8The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

Which technical standard does HTI-1 require for making source attributes available?

A. A custom XML-based API
B. A FHIR (Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources) API
C. A SOAP-based web service
D. Direct email notification
Q9The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

Which of the following is NOT a required source attribute under the HTI-1 PDSI framework?

A. Intended use and intended users
B. Validity and reliability measures
C. The vendor’s annual revenue
D. Data used to train the intervention
Q10The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

Under HTI-1, what is the healthcare provider organization’s expected role regarding PDSI source attributes?

A. Independently validate every algorithm before clinical use
B. Review source attributes, make them available to clinical users, and establish workflow management processes
C. Submit all AI tools to ONC for individual review
D. Discontinue use of any AI tool without FDA approval
Q11Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

Which of the following should be included in a comprehensive clinical AI inventory?

A. Only FDA-approved medical devices using AI
B. All AI systems in use, including approved, pilot, and unauthorized/shadow AI tools
C. Only AI systems purchased through formal procurement
D. Only AI systems developed in-house
Q12Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

What is the most effective approach for discovering shadow AI in a healthcare organization?

A. Reviewing only IT department purchase records
B. Combining network traffic analysis, endpoint scanning, and staff surveys
C. Waiting for staff to self-report unauthorized usage
D. Reviewing only the approved software list
Q13Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

Using the five-factor risk model, which factor considers whether an AI decision can be undone?

A. Data Sensitivity
B. Decision Impact
C. Human Oversight
D. Reversibility
Q14Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

A clinician enters patient names and conditions into a public AI chatbot to draft discharge summaries. What is the primary governance risk?

A. The chatbot may produce grammatically incorrect text
B. PHI is transmitted to an external service without a BAA, creating a HIPAA violation
C. The clinician may become dependent on AI for writing
D. The chatbot may charge the clinician’s credit card
Q15Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

When a healthcare organization discovers a new shadow AI tool, what should be the immediate governance response?

A. Immediately terminate the staff member who introduced it
B. Immediately block access and never reconsider
C. Assess the tool’s risk, determine if it processes PHI, and decide whether to formalize or block
D. Ignore it since it was not formally procured
Q16HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

Under HIPAA, when can a covered entity share PHI with an AI vendor?

A. Whenever convenient
B. Only when the vendor has signed a BAA and the disclosure is permitted under the Privacy Rule
C. Only when the vendor is also a covered entity
D. PHI can never be shared with AI vendors
Q17HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

The HIPAA Safe Harbor de-identification method requires removal of how many categories of identifiers?

A. 5 categories
B. 10 categories
C. 18 categories
D. 25 categories
Q18HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

Which HIPAA de-identification method requires a qualified statistician to determine that re-identification risk is "very small"?

A. Safe Harbor
B. Expert Determination
C. Minimum Necessary
D. Business Associate
Q19HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

Under the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule, what is the deadline for notifying affected individuals of a breach?

A. Within 24 hours
B. Within 60 days of discovery
C. Within 6 months
D. There is no specific deadline
Q20HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

When an AI vendor experiences a breach of PHI, what is the vendor’s obligation under the BAA?

A. The vendor has no obligation
B. Notify the covered entity without unreasonable delay and no later than 60 days after discovery
C. Notify affected patients directly without involving the covered entity
D. Notify the FDA within 24 hours
Q21Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

Which fairness metric requires that the model produces positive outcomes at equal rates across demographic groups?

A. Demographic parity
B. Equalized odds
C. Predictive parity
D. Calibration
Q22Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

A clinical AI model trained primarily on male patients underestimates risk for female patients who present with different symptoms. What type of bias is this?

A. Measurement bias
B. Selection bias
C. Confirmation bias
D. Anchoring bias
Q23Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

What is "concept drift" in a clinical AI model?

A. The model’s source code becomes corrupted
B. The relationship between inputs and outcomes changes over time, degrading performance
C. Developers forget original design decisions
D. The clinical concept is renamed by regulators
Q24Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

A model shows high overall accuracy but significantly lower sensitivity for a specific racial group. What is the appropriate governance action?

A. Deploy; high overall accuracy is sufficient
B. Do not deploy until the disparity is investigated and addressed
C. Deploy only for the group with high sensitivity
D. Wait for the model to self-correct
Q25Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

The FDA’s SaMD framework for AI/ML requires which of the following?

A. No validation; vendors self-regulate
B. A Predetermined Change Control Plan (PCCP) describing anticipated modifications and evaluation methods, plus initial validation
C. Only a marketing plan
D. A single validation test with no ongoing requirements
Q26AI Incident Response & Disclosure

How should an AI-specific incident response plan differ from a general IT/cyber incident response plan?

A. There should be no difference
B. An AI-specific plan must address AI-unique scenarios: model failure, biased outputs, data poisoning, training data leakage, and model drift
C. An AI-specific plan only needs to address accuracy
D. An AI-specific plan is only needed for medical devices
Q27AI Incident Response & Disclosure

A clinical AI model begins producing incorrect triage recommendations due to a change in hospital patient demographics. What type of incident is this?

A. A cyber attack
B. A model drift incident caused by distribution shift
C. A data breach
D. A hardware failure
Q28AI Incident Response & Disclosure

Under HIPAA, when does an AI-related data exposure qualify as a "breach" requiring notification?

A. Any time AI processes PHI
B. When there is impermissible use/disclosure of unsecured PHI and a risk assessment determines the exposure is not low probability
C. Any time an AI model makes an incorrect prediction
D. Only when the vendor publicly announces a breach
Q29AI Incident Response & Disclosure

What is a "tabletop exercise" in AI incident response?

A. Moving AI servers to different locations
B. A simulated scenario where team members discuss their roles and responses without executing them
C. A demonstration to the board
D. A competition between AI vendors
Q30AI Incident Response & Disclosure

Which of the following is an AI-specific security threat not typically addressed by traditional cybersecurity frameworks?

A. Phishing attacks
B. Model inversion attacks that extract training data by strategically querying a deployed model
C. Ransomware
D. DDoS attacks
Q31Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

Which structure is most effective for a clinical AI governance committee?

A. A single IT director making all decisions
B. A cross-functional committee with clinical, IT, legal, privacy, ethics, and patient advocacy representation, with a defined charter
C. An external consultant making all decisions
D. The hospital board making all decisions directly
Q32Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

What is the purpose of an AI governance committee charter?

A. To market the organization’s AI capabilities
B. To define the committee’s scope, authority, membership, decision rights, meeting cadence, and reporting obligations
C. To serve as a legal contract with vendors
D. To replace existing IT policies
Q33Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

Which stakeholder group is often overlooked but critical for a clinical AI governance committee?

A. The AI vendor’s sales team
B. Patient advocacy representatives who provide the patient perspective on AI impacts
C. The marketing department
D. Facilities management
Q34Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

What are "decision rights" in an AI governance charter?

A. The rights of AI vendors to make decisions
B. The documented allocation of authority for different types of AI governance decisions, specifying who can approve, reject, or escalate
C. The legal rights of patients to sue
D. The rights of the FDA to regulate
Q35Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

When communicating AI governance decisions to clinical staff, which approach is most effective?

A. Distribute a 200-page policy document
B. Provide clear, concise guidance integrated into clinical workflows with training on approved tools and reporting mechanisms
C. Post a notice on the intranet
D. Send a single email at policy adoption
Q36Professional Responsibility & Ethics

A CCAIGS specialist discovers their employer is deploying an AI model they believe poses a patient safety risk, but leadership approved it. What is the ethical obligation?

A. Follow leadership without question
B. Document the concern, escalate through the governance committee, and consider regulatory reporting as a last resort
C. Immediately resign without raising the concern
D. Publicly criticize on social media
Q37Professional Responsibility & Ethics

Which of the following represents a conflict of interest for a clinical AI governance specialist?

A. Having a preference for certain technologies
B. Holding a financial interest in an AI vendor being evaluated, without disclosing it
C. Having previously worked at a different organization
D. Having a favorite programming language
Q38Professional Responsibility & Ethics

Under the CCAIGS code of conduct, which principle requires specialists to maintain current knowledge of evolving AI regulations?

A. Cost minimization
B. Continuing professional development through ongoing education and recertification
C. Vendor loyalty
D. Organizational efficiency
Q39Professional Responsibility & Ethics

When escalating a patient safety concern about an AI system, which is the appropriate final step if internal channels fail?

A. Publicly criticize the organization on social media
B. Consider reporting to appropriate regulatory or oversight bodies as a last resort
C. Immediately resign and do nothing further
D. Contact the AI vendor directly to complain
Q40Professional Responsibility & Ethics

Which of the following is NOT a component of the CCAIGS code of conduct?

A. Duty of care to patients
B. Conflict of interest disclosure
C. Maximizing vendor profitability
D. Continuing professional development
Key Terms Glossary

Essential terminology

24 key terms you must know for the exam, organized by domain.

Foundations

GOVERN

The overarching NIST AI RMF function that establishes policies, roles, and a culture of risk management. Directs the other three functions.

Foundations

MAP

NIST AI RMF function that contextualizes the AI system — identifying intended use, context, stakeholders, and potential impacts.

Foundations

MEASURE

NIST AI RMF function that analyzes, assesses, benchmarks, and monitors AI system performance for trustworthiness.

Foundations

MANAGE

NIST AI RMF function that allocates resources to identified risks, responds to incidents, and manages the AI system lifecycle.

The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

PDSI

Predictive Decision Support Intervention — the HTI-1 framework for algorithm transparency in certified health IT.

The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

Source Attributes

Required transparency disclosures under HTI-1, including intended use, training data, validity/reliability, maintenance, and fairness information.

The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

CEHRT

Certified Electronic Health Record Technology — health IT that has been certified by the ONC. HTI-1 applies to AI within CEHRT.

The HTI-1 Algorithm Transparency Mandate

FHIR API

Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources API — the technical standard HTI-1 requires for making source attributes available.

Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

Shadow AI

AI tools used by staff without formal organizational approval or governance oversight. A major compliance blind spot.

Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

Human-in-the-Loop

A design where a human reviews or approves AI-generated outputs before they are acted upon. Reduces risk tier.

Clinical AI Inventory & Risk Classification

Five-Factor Risk Model

Risk classification framework: Data Sensitivity, Decision Impact, Human Oversight, Scale, and Reversibility.

HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

BAA

Business Associate Agreement — contract required under HIPAA when a vendor handles PHI on behalf of a covered entity.

HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

Safe Harbor

HIPAA de-identification method requiring removal of 18 categories of identifiers.

HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

Expert Determination

HIPAA de-identification method where a qualified statistician certifies re-identification risk is "very small."

HIPAA & Data Governance for AI

Minimum Necessary

HIPAA standard requiring that PHI access be limited to the minimum needed for the intended purpose.

Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

Demographic Parity

Fairness metric requiring equal positive outcome rates across demographic groups, regardless of base rates.

Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

Equalized Odds

Fairness metric requiring equal true positive AND false positive rates across groups. Stricter than demographic parity.

Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

Concept Drift

When the relationship between inputs and outcomes changes over time, degrading model performance without code changes.

Bias, Fairness & Clinical Validation

PCCP

Predetermined Change Control Plan — FDA requirement for AI/ML SaMD, describing anticipated modifications and evaluation methods.

AI Incident Response & Disclosure

Model Inversion

AI-specific attack where an adversary extracts training data (potentially PHI) by strategically querying a deployed model.

AI Incident Response & Disclosure

Tabletop Exercise

A simulated incident scenario where team members discuss (not execute) their roles to test the incident response plan.

Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

Decision Rights

Documented allocation of authority specifying who can approve, reject, or escalate different categories of AI deployments.

Governance Committee & Stakeholder Engagement

AI Risk Officer

Designated lead responsible for AI governance, with documented authority, inventory oversight, and leadership reporting.

Professional Responsibility & Ethics

Duty of Care

Ethical obligation to patients that transcends organizational hierarchy; requires escalation of safety concerns through proper channels.

Test-Taking Strategies

Maximize your performance

Read each question stem completely before looking at the options. Form your answer mentally, then find it among the choices.

Watch for absolute language ("always," "never," "only") — these are often incorrect in governance contexts where nuance matters.

Eliminate clearly wrong options first. If you can eliminate two, your odds improve from 25% to 50%.

Beta questions are indistinguishable from scored questions. Do not try to identify them — answer every question as if it counts.

Flag questions you are unsure about and return to them during the review phase. Do not spend more than 2 minutes on any single question initially.

If two options seem correct, choose the one that is more comprehensive or more directly addresses the question stem.

Manage your time: 180 minutes / 100 questions = 1.8 minutes per question average. Budget your time accordingly.

Trust your preparation. If you have studied the curriculum and reference materials, your first instinct is often correct.

Ready to test your knowledge?

The CCAIGS examination is 100 questions, 180 minutes, and one step toward certification.

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